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MUTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION WITH ANSWER KEY

T-4.8.5 Pharmacology-IV

 (Clinical Pharmacy and Drug Interactions) Test II

 

1) The term phocomelia is related with which of the drug induced disease.

A. Teratogenicity          

B. Carcinogenicity

C. Genotoxicity               

D. Ototoxicity

 

2) Which of the following is NOT the type of drug interaction

A. Drug-laboratory test interaction

B. Drug-smoke interaction

C. Drug-metabolite interaction

D. Drug-environmental contaminant interaction

 

3) Which of the following is NOT the drug induced dermatological reaction.

A. Erythema multiforme                 

 B. Cornea vericillata

C. Toxic epidermal necrolysis        

D. Hirsutism

 

4) Select the appropriate symptom of cholestatic jaundice caused by chlorpromazine.

A. Myalgia                          

B. Chills

C. Loss of appetite         

 D. All of the above

 

5) Which of the followings does not comes under the objectives of Therapeutic Drug Monitoring.

A. Individualization of dosing of drug that have predictable dose-response relationship

B. Dosage adjustment in patients with pre-existing hepatic or renal impairment

C. Providing medical advantage by reducing the chances of drug toxicity

D. Providing economic convenience to the patients by shortening their hospital stay

 

6) Identify the FALSE statement about drug interactions.

A. Interacting drugs should be never used together

B. Drug interaction indicates effect of one drug altered by another drug

C. Risk of drug interaction increases with number of drugs in therapeutic regimen

D. Drug interactions can leads to the beneficial effects in patients

 

7) Identify the class of drugs which is having more nephrotoxic potential.

A. Aminoglycoside antibiotics

B. ACE inhibitors

C. Polyene antibiotics

D. Potassium sparing diuretics

 

8) Identify correct statements about therapeutic range

A. Maximum therapeutic concentration + Maximum effective concentration

B. Maximum therapeutic concentration + Minimum toxic concentration

C. Minimum effective concentration + Maximum toxic concentration

D. Minimum effective concentration + Minimum toxic concentration

 

9)  What is the meaning of EMIT method used in the TDM?

A. Enzyme multiplies immunotechnique

B. Excited multiplies immunotechnique

C. Enzyme mode immunotechnique

D. Enzyme modification immunotechnique

 

10) Select the appropriate biological sample for the TDM of Lithium or phenytoin.

A. Urine          

B. Sweat

C. Saliva        

D. Whole blood

 

11)  Slips and lapses denotes which type of errors?

A. Knowledge based errors           

B. Rule based errors

C. Mistakes                                      

D. Skill based errors

 

12) Identify the sources of medication errors.

A. Incomplete delivery of drugs

B. Misidentification of patient

C. Unclear labeling of drugs

D. All options are correct

 

13) Which type of medication error can occur from the receipt of the prescription in the pharmacy to  the supply of drugs to the patient?

A. Prescription error                

 B. Dispensing error

C. Administration error            

D. Compliance error

 

14) Who makes the active components of medicines?

A. Pharmacists          

B. Chemists

C. Doctors                   

D. Pharmacologists

 

15) Which of the following application should be filled for the generic medicine

manufacturing.

A.IND              

 B.NDA

C.ANDA           

D.None of the above

 

16)  For preclinical testing of new drug molecule which application of following should

be applied

A.IND                   

B.NDA

C.ANDA               

D.All of the above

 

17) What is the purpose of pre-clinical testing?

A. To verify that a drug is sufficiently safe and effective to be tested in humans.

B. To undergo preliminary testing in healthy humans to monitor the effects of

the drug.

C. To create a basic outline for the larger scale future tests on a widespread

population.

D.A and B

 

18) On what does Phase 1 clinical testing test?

A. Animal subjects

B. Healthy human volunteers

C. Widespread differentiated population

D. People with the target disease/condition

E. Large-scale tests in people with the target disease/population

 

19) On what does Phase 2 clinical trials test?

A. Animals

B. Healthy human volunteers

C. Widespread differentiated population

D. People with the target disease/condition

E.Large-scale tests in people with the target disease/population

 

20) What is the approximate ratio of potential compounds the beginning of

Development to number of products that ultimately get FDA approval?

A.1:10             

B.1:100

C.1:1,000        

D.1:10,000

 

21) On average, it takes ____________ years to do the discovery research and

testing to bring a new drug to the market.

A.6-9                       

B.9-12

C.12-15                 

 D.15-18

 

22) What are the two greatest challenges for the Development team?

A. Managing risks and complying with FDA requirements

B. Improving time to market and decreasing toxicity

C. Accelerating time to market and managing risk

D. Complying with FDA requirements and improving efficacy

 

23) Which of the following is not the drug induced disease

A.Hepatitis                    

 B.Ototoxicity

C.Teratogenicity            

D.Influenza

 

24) Which of the following is only the drug induced disease

A. Malaria              

B. Influenza

C. HIV                     

D. Teratogenicity

 

25) Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) of drug used to which of the following

disorders

A. Seizure                                  

B. Psychiatric

C. Organ Transplantation        

D. All of the above

 

26) The MOST common type of medication error is:

A. Wrong drug

B. Wrong route of administration

C. Administering improper dose

D. Wrong patient

 

27) What type of medication error is a prescription for a client with known allergy or

intolerance?

A. Prescription error           

B. Transcription error

C. Dispensing error            

 D. Administration error


28) What is the primary focus of Phase 3 Clinical testing?

A. How to manage costs.

B. The collection and analysis of highly specific efficacy end-point data.

C. The optimal range of effective dosage.

D. The analysis of data results from the small-subset target population.

 

29) When does a company seek permission to market a product in the US?

A. Following the completion of Phase 1

B. Following the completion of Phase 2

C. Following the completion of Phase 3

D. Following the completion of Phase 4

 

30) What is a synonym/description for the Phase 4 trials?

A. Post Marketing Surveillance

B. Pre Marketing Surveillance

 C. Pre FDA Approval

D. Post FDA Approval

 

31) Which of the following drug is indicated for TDM

A. Theophylline           

B. Vancomycin

C. Methotrexate          

D. All of the above

 

32) Following are the role of pharmacist in TDM except;

A. Dose Adjustment for patient on haemodialysis

B. Refinement and adjustment of dosage regimen

C. Patient diagnosis

D. Research activities

 

33) What is NOT a true statement about Phase 4 Trials?

A. Phase 4 trials are typically not randomized/placebo controlled

B. Phase 4 trials are typically when the product is finalized and submitted for patent protection

C. Phase 4 trials may include new populations in which to test the drug

D. Phase 4 trials may include new formulations and/or adjusted dosing regimens

 

34) What type of medication error is misunderstanding of intended order?

A. Prescription error       

B. Transcription error

C. Dispensing error       

D. Administration error

 

35) What type of medication error is an incorrect drug or dose sent to the unit?

A. Transcription error            

 B. Dispensing error

C. Administration error           

D. Documentation error


36) What type of medication error is incorrect formulation or dosage form?

A. Prescription error                 

B. Dispensing error

C. Administration error            

D. Documentation error


37) What type of medication error is incorrect calculation of dose to be given?

A. Prescription error           

 B. Transcription error

C. Administration error        

D. Monitoring error

 

38) What type of medication error is forgetting to give the patient the medication?

A. Prescription error           

B. Transcription error

C. Dispensing error              

D. Administration error

 

39) What type of medication error is an incorrect administration technique or route?

A. Dispensing error              

B. Administration error

C. Monitoring error              

D. Documentation error

 

40) TDM of drug not used to which of the following disorder

A. CVS                                        

B. Seizure

C. Organ Transplantation         

D. None of the above

 

41) Cisplatin-induced nephrotoxicity is best prevented by

A. administering a reduced dose.

B. saline hydration.

C. administering amifostine.

D. A and C.

 

42) The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin, except:

A.Cholestyramine     

B.Thiazide diuretics

C.Quinidine              

D.Amlodipine

 

43) What studies in Preclinical Evaluation

A. Acute toxicity         

 B. Subacute toxicity

C. Chronic toxicity        

D. All Of Above

 

44) What is the difference between pharmacodynamic interactions and pharmacokinetic interactions?

A.In pharmacokinetic interactions, one drug alters the sensitivity or responsiveness of tissues to another drug by having the same (agonistic) effect.

B.In pharmacokinetic interactions, one drug alters the sensitivity or responsiveness of tissues to another drug by having a blocking (antagonistic) effect.

C.In pharmacodynamic interactions, a drug alters the metabolism or excretion of another drug.

D. In pharmacokinetic interactions, a drug alters the metabolism or excretion of another drug.

 

45) Full form of TDM is

A. Therotical dose measure

B. Therapeutic drug monitoring

C. Temperature dose monitoring

D. Therapeutic dose monitoring

 

46) Which of the following is an example of therapeutic duplication?

A. Two different drugs targeting the same disease are prescribed together

B.A patient taking a double dose of a drug prescribed for once-daily use

C.A pharmacist dispensing a drug that another pharmacist is also dispensing for the same patient

D. Two drugs with similar properties being taken at the same time

 

47) Antipyschotic drug-induced Parkinsonism is treated by:

A. Anticholinergics     

B.Levodopa

C. Selegilin                    

D. Amantadine

 

48) The most common manifestation of drug-induced nephrotoxicity (DIN) is a decline in the glomerular filtration rate leading to

A. Metabolic acidosis with bicarbonaturia

B. Oliguria.

C.A rise in serum creatinine (SCr) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).

D. Hyperkalemia.

 

49) Of the following, what would be the most appropriate time for evaluation of a peak digoxin level after oral administration?

A. immediately before the next dose

B.immediately after a dose

C. 8 hours after a dose

D. 3 days after a dose

 

50) Which of the following is a common side effect of codeine?

A. Diarrhea            

B. Constipation

C. Coughing          

D. Muscle twitching

 

51) Which is not a possible side effect of furosemide?

A. Hypotension               

 B. Hyperglycemic

C. Allergic reaction        

D. Pulmonary edema

 

52) The MOST common type of medication error is:

A. Wrong drug

B. Wrong route of administration

C. Administering improper dose

D. Wrong patient

 

53) The Various approaches to drug discovery include

1-Pharmacological,     2-Toxicological,    3-IND Application,   

4-Drug Characterization,  5-Dosage Form,     6) Pharmacoeconomics

A. 1, 2, 3, 6

B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6


54) Mechanism of drug action is explored by:

 A. Pharmacokinetics               

B. Pharmacogenetics

C. Pharmacoeconomics      

D. Pharmacodynamics

 

55) Therapeutic drug monitoring means:

 A. Trough concentration under steady-state condition

 B. Measurement of medication concentrations in blood

 C. The process of chemical alteration of drugs in the body

 D. Amount of untoward effects following treatment

 E. Development of expected desired effects

 

56) Therapeutic index is the ratio of:

 A. LD50 over the ED50

 B. ED50over the LD50

 C. Bioavailability over drug dose

 D. Apparent volume of distribution over elimination rate constant

 E. Total clearance over nonrenal (extrarenal) clearance

 

57) The subjects of pharmacokinetics are all except:

A. Route of administration of the drug.

B. Biotransformation of active substance.

C. Distribution of active substance within the organism.

D. Binding of the active substance with plasma albumins.

E. Adverse effects of the drug


58) Which of the following is not the subject for pharmacodynamics?

A. Mechanism of action.

B. Duration of effect.

C. Adverse effects.

D. Phases of metabolism.

E. Affinity.

59) Therapeutic dose is not related to:

 A) patient’s age

 B) rout of administration

C) desired therapeutic effect

D) organs of elimination

E) treatment costs

 

60) Biotransformation is the

A. Process that defines the drug entrance into the systemic circulation from the site of administration or application

B. Elimination of drugs from the body

C. Disposition of a drug throughout the body from the general circulation

D. Abstract concept, which determines where is a drug distributed

E. Chemical processing of drugs before they will leave an organs


1.  A

2. B  

3.  D

4.  D

5.    D

6.   D

7.  A

8.  B

9.  A

10.  D

11. A

12. D

13. A

14.  B

15.  C

16.  A

17.  A

18.  B

19.  D

20.  C

21.  C

22.  C

23.  D

24. D

25. D

26.  C

27.  A

28.  B

29. C

30. A

31.  D

32.  C

33. B

34.  B

35. B 

36. B 

37. C

38. D 

39. B

40.  D 

41.  D

42. D

43.  D

44.  D

45.  B

46. A

47. A

48. D

49.  C

50.  B

51. D

52. C

53. B

54.  D

55. B

56.  A

57. E

58. E

59. D

60. E

 

 

 

 


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